"5 For this reason I left you in Crete, that you should set in order the things that are lacking, and appoint elders in every city as I commanded you -- 6 if a man is blameless, the husband of one wife, having faithful children not accused of dissipation or insubordination. 7 For a bishop must be blameless, as a steward of God, not self-willed, not quick-tempered, not given to wine, not violent, not greedy for money, 8 but hospitable, a lover of what is good, sober-minded, just, holy, self-controlled, 9 holding fast the faithful word as he has been taught, that he may be able, by sound doctrine, both to exhort and convict those who contradict." -- Titus 1:5-9, NKJV
So, to start, Paul explains why he left Titus in Crete; there was work to be done there. Apparently, each city where there were believers needed an elder.
In verse 6, Paul lists the requirements for an elder:
* "blameless": I've heard it said that being blameless is mainly being right with God. I wonder, what does the Greek say?
Strong's Dictionary says that the word for "blameless" is "anegkletos", meaning unaccused, that is, (by implication) irreproachable .
On Dictionary.com, the English word "reproach" means "to find blame". So yeah, the elder must be literally "blame" "less".
* "the husband of one wife": Two parts to this, more like three given the times. First, "The husband", meaning the elder must be married. Second, "of one", meaning the husband must be monogamous. Elders, along with bishops, are required to have just one wife. Nowhere in Scripture does it give the same requirement for the laity, but that's for another time. Third, "wife". The spouse must be a woman. I know this is obvious, but as I have said, the times demand that I reiterate that an elder must not be in a same-sex marriage, like the clergy in the Episcopal Church. The Greek for "wife" literally means "woman".
* "having faithful children not accused of dissipation or insubordination": Before I get into the faith of elder's children, let me ask this question: Can someone in the church be an elder if he does not have children at all? I don't know. I don't dare try to add to the Word of God on this. (Proverbs 30:6). As for the faith of the children, do they believe? Are the children free of being accused of being wild and disobedient? There is a reputation amongst "preacher's kids", in that they are rebellious, practically the very thing that disqualifies an elder. A true elder must not allow their kids from behaving this way. When I was looking over the autobiography of Darwin Fish, the very pastor that led me to rethink my Christianity, I found that he cites that since 2014, he is no longer a pastor, since one of his daughters left the faith.
Now, v. 7. Paul says "For a bishop must be...". Does this mean that a bishop and an elder are the same thing? The context seems to suggest so. So for now, let's use the term "bishop".
Paul repeats the requirement of blamelessness, and then adds the words "as a steward of God". Of course! The bishop represents Him!
* "not self-willed": Strong's Dictionary defines the Greek word "authades", meaning "self-pleasing". So, a bishop but not please himself.
* "not quick-tempered": This one's a little easier to understand, I think. A bishop must not easily blow his cork!
* "not given to wine": OK, does this mean JUST wine, or all alcoholic beverages? Well, the Greek suggests it's just wine. It's the same Greek word Paul used in I Timothy 3:3 when giving requirements for bishops (read on about that). Still, could this requirement extend to beer, whiskey, vodka, gin, etc? I'm not sure.
* "not violent": Self-explanatory.
* "not greedy for money": Also self-explanatory, well, almost. Some people think greed is displayed only in the megachurches, when the likes of Jesse Duplantis or Kenneth Copeland (both obviously false teachers) ask for money for a private jet. Yet, even passing the offering plate with the purpose of soliciting tithes and offerings could also be considered greedy, if we are to adhere to the standard of Abram in Genesis 14:23:
"that I will take nothing, from a thread to a sandal strap, and that I will not take anything that is yours, lest you should say, 'I have made Abram rich'--" (NKJV)
V. 8:
* "hospitable": Does the bishop take people in to his own house and treat them like an honored guest? In fact, the Greek word "philoxenos", literally means "fond of guests"!
* "a lover of what is good": Again, the Greek makes it plain, the word is "philagathos", literally meaning "fond of good". Strong's Dictionary also renders this as "a promoter of virtue". Does the bishop love what is good, that is, what is virtuous?
* "sober-minded": What is a sober-minded man? My best guess is that the bishop has it all together in his head, but I'm not sure.
* "just": Self-explanatory.
* "holy": Is the bishop set apart? (for example, is his life a polar opposite of that of the world? To be set apart in this manner is the very definition of holiness.)
* "self-controlled": This is a little like "not quick-tempered", but has other applications. It is not enough for the bishop to not be quick to anger. The bishop must also stay away from excess of any sort.
* "holding fast the faithful word as he has been taught": Does the bishop stick to the Truth? And there is a reason for this particular requirement:
v. 9:
"both to exhort and convict those who contradict."
Sound doctrine gives the naysayers an answer to their accusations. The Word of God is perfect in doing this.
Just like in the previous verses, these five verses contained a lot of information. Already, I'm tired. (Ecclesiastes 12:12). Not sure when or if I'll continue with the series. If and when I do, we'll get into verses 10-16, titled in the NKJV "The Elders' Task". This is where Paul gets into the meat of the false teacher problem at hand.
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